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6 votes
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Outside of English, is there a difference between noun infinitives and gerunds?

It's hard to say, because outside of language-specific traditions (especially English and Latin), "gerund" is not a clearly-defined part of speech. For example, in Bantu languages, there is a clearly-...
user6726's user avatar
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3 votes
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Are there some languages that do not have infinitives/participles/gerunds?

So are there some languages that do not use verbs directly to form nouns, adjectives, or adverbs by means of transforming the verb into an infinitive, participle, gerund, or similar such aspect of ...
kGdmioT's user avatar
  • 146
3 votes
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When analyzing a set of corpora, are there any standard practices with regard to the classification of gerunds?

Present and past participles can function like nouns, adjectives or verbs. There are clearly some examples where the non-lemma form has taken on a life of its own. There are some which have currency ...
Adam Bittlingmayer's user avatar
3 votes

Is a gerund a part of speech?

The term "gerund" is a fudge. It is used as if it was a subcategory of verb, when in fact, of course, it is just a particular inflected form of a given verb. Worse than this, this pseudo part of ...
Araucaria - him's user avatar
2 votes

Is a gerund a part of speech?

Edited into something slightly more useful in light of the comments below. A gerund is not a part of speech in that it is not a category on the level of noun, verb, determiner, preposition, etc. (Of ...
Luke Sawczak's user avatar
  • 2,570
2 votes

Why is the need+concealed passive gerund construction unavailable with polyadic gerunds?

This is not a great explanation, and it's conjectural, but here goes. We know that in the evolution of grammatical systems, new constructions are introduced only gradually, beginning with simpler ...
Greg Lee's user avatar
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2 votes

When analyzing a set of corpora, are there any standard practices with regard to the classification of gerunds?

Generally speaking, gerunds are lemmatised and counted as verbs (and typically, there is just one tag like VING for the ing-form of the verb, no matter how it is used in a sentence) in corpus ...
Sir Cornflakes's user avatar
1 vote

Finite Nominalised Clauses

I can only answer for your general question. If we define the difference between a finite clause and a non-finite clause by the fact that the non-finite clause does not include subject whereas for the ...
amegnunsen's user avatar
  • 1,535
1 vote

Is a gerund a part of speech?

I think you need another level to find where gerunds fit in: 0. Inflectional forms of parts of speech 1. Parts of speech 2. Phrases 3. Roles within a sentence like Subject and Object A ...
Greg Lee's user avatar
  • 12.5k

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