77 votes

What is the term for this derivation: "Cheeseburger comes from Hamburger" but... the word hamburger didn't refer to ham

This is called rebracketing: when the original [hamburg][er] is reinterpreted as [ham][burger]. Other examples include [alcohol][ic] > [alco][holic] and [helico][pter] > [heli][copter].
Draconis's user avatar
  • 66.2k
32 votes

What is the term for this derivation: "Cheeseburger comes from Hamburger" but... the word hamburger didn't refer to ham

It is unclear whether cheeseburger was actually formed based on a misunderstanding of the etymology of the word hamburger. It can be noted that the word burger without the ham is also in frequent use. ...
jkej's user avatar
  • 421
27 votes

Derivation of the Indo-European lemma *bʰréh₂tēr ‘brother’

Lots (and I mean lots) of ink has been spent going over the possible etymology of this root – so far with no firm conclusions. A recent ‘current state of affairs’ treatment not only of *bʰréh₂tēr, but ...
Janus Bahs Jacquet's user avatar
10 votes
Accepted

Is there a name for a diminutive whose meaning has decoupled from the original word?

These have been referred to as "lexicalised diminutives" in the literature. The terms "fossilised/frozen diminutive" also occur in other works. This paper by Bagasheva-Koleva is ...
jogloran's user avatar
  • 5,144
9 votes

What is the term for this derivation: "Cheeseburger comes from Hamburger" but... the word hamburger didn't refer to ham

There is some folk etymology involved: First, hamburger is given a folk etymology containing actually ham and then new words can be formed after the perceived model of hamburger. The term rebracketing ...
Sir Cornflakes's user avatar
9 votes

What is the term for this derivation: "Cheeseburger comes from Hamburger" but... the word hamburger didn't refer to ham

Two relevant terms are back-formation and reanalysis (along with rebracketing and folk etymology) already mentioned in other answers). Reanalysis is (in my experience) the most general of these, ...
PLL's user avatar
  • 217
8 votes

Is there a theory of word polysemy? Case of snake versus serpent

There is no derivation in the example you gave. A derivation, in Linguistics, is when a morpheme is added to another morpheme to produce a new meaning. The case you are talking about can be analysed ...
amegnunsen's user avatar
  • 1,525
7 votes

Name for a verb form meaning "feign or pretend to do sth"

As I wrote in a comment, this is one of the functions of the Biblical Hebrew Dt (hitpael) stem, but the two reference grammars I had a look at do not agree on terminology: Waltke and O'Connor (An ...
Keelan's user avatar
  • 4,214
7 votes
Accepted

difference between the root, lemma and stem for a derived word

For your English example drivers The lemma is driver The stem is also driver The root is driv The whole thing is better explained in a language with more inflections, where things become interesting....
Sir Cornflakes's user avatar
7 votes

Are inflectional morphemes considered affixes in English?

Wikipedia captures the usual understanding of the term: Affixes may be derivational, like English -ness and pre-, or inflectional, like English plural -s and past tense -ed. In this terminology also ...
Keelan's user avatar
  • 4,214
6 votes
Accepted

Why some verbs have -tion while others don't, when being nounified

Would be good to know if this is just because of the fact that English is messy, or there is some other reason. Yes and yes. Yes, because English is messy. The -tion examples are of course all ...
Adam Bittlingmayer's user avatar
6 votes

Derivation of the Indo-European lemma *bʰréh₂tēr ‘brother’

The usual account I've seen is that it's analogical. *ph₂tḗr makes sense as a derivation from *peh₂-, and then *méh₂tēr, *bʰréh₂tēr, and possibly *dʰugh₂tḗr came to resemble it by analogy—as you ...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 66.2k
5 votes

Why two appearances of the past participle "ganado" in this derivation?

One of the main reasons for positing a v layer separate from V is the behavior of ditransitive verbs. In particular, all the objects of a ditransitive verb seem to form a constituent of their own, ...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 66.2k
5 votes
Accepted

Derivation of Greek οὐρά (backside) from PIE *h₁ers (flow)

The idea is that there were two homophonic IE roots: *h₁ers- "tail" and *h₁ers- "to flow". Nobody is claiming that the two are connected.
fdb's user avatar
  • 24.2k
5 votes
Accepted

What is the difference between a borrowed and a derived Word in Linguistics?

In this sense, a "derived" word is derived from something else within the same language, or a direct ancestor of that language. For example, English "miniature" is borrowed from ...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 66.2k
5 votes

Is there a theory of word polysemy? Case of snake versus serpent

Snake and serpent mean exactly the same thing. Is that really true? Of course they both denote the same class of animals, but that doesn't mean they mean exactly the same thing. They have slightly ...
abarnert's user avatar
  • 2,625
5 votes

Are inflectional morphemes considered affixes in English?

You have inverted the usual "considered" relation. There is no uncertainty as to what a prefix is versus a suffix. A prefix precedes the root, a suffix follows the root. "Affix" is ...
user6726's user avatar
  • 83.1k
4 votes

Part of Speech in English

I'm assuming you're talking about derivational morphology: adding prefixes and suffixes to words to change their part of speech. The answer is: because it gives you more words! Take the word "...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 66.2k
4 votes

Is the {-ing} of the gerund a verbal inflectional suffix?

As usual in linguistics, a lot depends on your theory of language. Not everyone has gerunds in their theory (actually most modern syntacticians don't). There are some researchers who understand ...
Alex B.'s user avatar
  • 8,744
4 votes

Languages w/out morphology

Vietnamese has no affixation at all, though it does have syntax. New words can (in principle) be formed out of thin air, or borrowed from other languages: so word-formation is possible in Vietnamese, ...
user6726's user avatar
  • 83.1k
4 votes

Can words be formed by deriving from just prefix(es) and suffix(es) with no actual root morpheme between?

In Esperanto there are some words of this kind, e.g., malina "male" composed of mal- "negation, opposite of" and -ina "feminine" More examples can be found in this answer: https://esperanto....
Sir Cornflakes's user avatar
4 votes

Derivation, zero-affixation verb tenses

“Boycotted” has no derivational affixes, so it belongs to zero derivation aka conversion. The affix -ed is an inflectional affix, so you cannot generally say “boycotted” is an example of zero ...
Yellow Sky's user avatar
  • 18.3k
3 votes
Accepted

Common root 'to gather' and 'together'

According to Etymonline, the English word goes back to a Proto-Indo-European root: Old English togædere "so as to be present in one place, in a group, in an accumulated mass," from to (see to) + ...
amandapingelramsay's user avatar
3 votes

What to call an adjective that is a participle of a verb that is no longer used?

I would say "unscathed" is an orphaned participle and a relic.
Stewart's user avatar
  • 31
3 votes

The affixation differentiating between nominal arithmetic and adjectival arithmetic

I've never seen this kind of vowel alternation analyzed as a "simulfix" like that. I would say that it would be preferable to use either of the following analyses: the different ...
brass tacks's user avatar
  • 18.1k
3 votes

Is there a theory of word polysemy? Case of snake versus serpent

Snake and serpent mean exactly the same thing. But they're different words when they're treated as derivations. That derivation is a misnomer has already been pointed out, so let's ignore that. The ...
David Vogt's user avatar
2 votes

What is the difference between vPs and v*Ps?

They are not the same. 1. v* (with this label) corresponds to a verb projection with a full argument structure or what is called a Core Functional Category (CFC) with transitivity. This v*P is the ...
Tsutsu's user avatar
  • 1,068
2 votes

Is the {-ing} of the gerund a verbal inflectional suffix?

The -ing ending of the English gerund is inflectional, since suffixing it does not change the part of speech, and this is generally taken as distinguishing English inflection from derivation. Adding ...
Greg Lee's user avatar
  • 12.5k
2 votes

Why is a nominalisation called "grammatical metaphor" in SFL

"Grammatical metaphor" is a functional way of explaining a certain kind of linguistic phenomena while "nominalisation" is an non-functional way of explaining a subset of them. I'll try to make it ...
Daniel Couto-Vale's user avatar
2 votes
Accepted

Is there a theory of word polysemy? Case of snake versus serpent

I'm aware of a huge project conducted by Borer (2005a,b; 2013), a major part of it is dealing with word polysemy. However, her project is not purely morphological per se, since you requested theories ...
Tsutsu's user avatar
  • 1,068

Only top scored, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible