10 votes
Accepted

Is there a name for a diminutive whose meaning has decoupled from the original word?

These have been referred to as "lexicalised diminutives" in the literature. The terms "fossilised/frozen diminutive" also occur in other works. This paper by Bagasheva-Koleva is ...
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  • 4,270
9 votes
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Meaning of the root "ject"

The root is Latin iaciō (throw, cast), whose supine is iactum. Because of Latin ablaut (vowel change), prefixes like sub-, ob-, pro- trigger a vowel change to *-iectum.
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  • 4,270
8 votes

Is there a theory of word polysemy? Case of snake versus serpent

There is no derivation in the example you gave. A derivation, in Linguistics, is when a morpheme is added to another morpheme to produce a new meaning. The case you are talking about can be analysed ...
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7 votes

Name for a verb form meaning "feign or pretend to do sth"

As I wrote in a comment, this is one of the functions of the Biblical Hebrew Dt (hitpael) stem, but the two reference grammars I had a look at do not agree on terminology: Waltke and O'Connor (An ...
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  • 3,078
6 votes
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difference between the root, lemma and stem for a derived word

For your English example drivers The lemma is driver The stem is also driver The root is driv The whole thing is better explained in a language with more inflections, where things become interesting....
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6 votes
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Why some verbs have -tion while others don't, when being nounified

Would be good to know if this is just because of the fact that English is messy, or there is some other reason. Yes and yes. Yes, because English is messy. The -tion examples are of course all ...
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6 votes

The suffix -er in English: Why is this derivational?

-er a derivational suffix because it changes the word class to which the entire expression belongs. That is what defines derivational affixes. bake is a verb, but bak-er is a noun. (I assume the ...
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  • 1,404
5 votes

Is there a theory of word polysemy? Case of snake versus serpent

Snake and serpent mean exactly the same thing. Is that really true? Of course they both denote the same class of animals, but that doesn't mean they mean exactly the same thing. They have slightly ...
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  • 2,585
5 votes
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Derivation of Greek οὐρά (backside) from PIE *h₁ers (flow)

The idea is that there were two homophonic IE roots: *h₁ers- "tail" and *h₁ers- "to flow". Nobody is claiming that the two are connected.
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5 votes
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Latin nouns derived from pluperfect verbs

A lot of confusion here... Let's try to clear it up: Forms like facta, scripta are neuter plural forms of the perfect passive participle. The meaning of the perfect passive participle is "having been ...
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5 votes
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What is the difference between a borrowed and a derived Word in Linguistics?

In this sense, a "derived" word is derived from something else within the same language, or a direct ancestor of that language. For example, English "miniature" is borrowed from ...
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5 votes

Why two appearances of the past participle "ganado" in this derivation?

One of the main reasons for positing a v layer separate from V is the behavior of ditransitive verbs. In particular, all the objects of a ditransitive verb seem to form a constituent of their own, ...
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4 votes

Languages w/out morphology

Vietnamese has no affixation at all, though it does have syntax. New words can (in principle) be formed out of thin air, or borrowed from other languages: so word-formation is possible in Vietnamese, ...
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4 votes

Part of Speech in English

I'm assuming you're talking about derivational morphology: adding prefixes and suffixes to words to change their part of speech. The answer is: because it gives you more words! Take the word "...
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4 votes

Is the {-ing} of the gerund a verbal inflectional suffix?

As usual in linguistics, a lot depends on your theory of language. Not everyone has gerunds in their theory (actually most modern syntacticians don't). There are some researchers who understand ...
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  • 8,404
4 votes

Can words be formed by deriving from just prefix(es) and suffix(es) with no actual root morpheme between?

In Esperanto there are some words of this kind, e.g., malina "male" composed of mal- "negation, opposite of" and -ina "feminine" More examples can be found in this answer: https://esperanto....
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4 votes

Derivation, zero-affixation verb tenses

“Boycotted” has no derivational affixes, so it belongs to zero derivation aka conversion. The affix -ed is an inflectional affix, so you cannot generally say “boycotted” is an example of zero ...
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3 votes

What to call an adjective that is a participle of a verb that is no longer used?

I would say "unscathed" is an orphaned participle and a relic.
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3 votes
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Common root 'to gather' and 'together'

According to Etymonline, the English word goes back to a Proto-Indo-European root: Old English togædere "so as to be present in one place, in a group, in an accumulated mass," from to (see to) + ...
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3 votes

Is there a theory of word polysemy? Case of snake versus serpent

Snake and serpent mean exactly the same thing. But they're different words when they're treated as derivations. That derivation is a misnomer has already been pointed out, so let's ignore that. The ...
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3 votes

The suffix -er in English: Why is this derivational?

I am not convinced that either one of these answers in correct. Most Indo-European languages have suffixes that make verbs into participles (i.e. adjectives), like English go > going, Latin amo > ...
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3 votes

The affixation differentiating between nominal arithmetic and adjectival arithmetic

I've never seen this kind of vowel alternation analyzed as a "simulfix" like that. I would say that it would be preferable to use either of the following analyses: the different ...
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  • 16.5k
2 votes

The suffix -er in English: Why is this derivational?

I don't think you've said the correct distinguishing factors between derivational and inflectional affixes. The primary factor I think is that derivational affixes often change the part of speech of ...
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2 votes
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Does the classification of languages "agglutinating" concern itself with inflectional morphology, derivational morphology, or both?

The original formulation of the 'aggluttinative type' applied to both derivation and inflection. The key element is monosemantic nature of the morphemes involved (but there are also many other ...
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2 votes

Order of derivational and inflectional affixes

The Wikipedia “formula” is indeed highly problematic in so far as it assumes that derivation and inflection are effected solely by suffixation, which is manifestly not true in many languages. For ...
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2 votes

Is the {-ing} of the gerund a verbal inflectional suffix?

The -ing ending of the English gerund is inflectional, since suffixing it does not change the part of speech, and this is generally taken as distinguishing English inflection from derivation. Adding ...
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  • 12.3k
2 votes
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Is there a theory of word polysemy? Case of snake versus serpent

I'm aware of a huge project conducted by Borer (2005a,b; 2013), a major part of it is dealing with word polysemy. However, her project is not purely morphological per se, since you requested theories ...
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  • 1,028
2 votes

Name for a verb form meaning "feign or pretend to do sth"

I recently found some literature on this function in Wolof referred to as the "pretendive" (though I'm not sure how standard a term that is): Torrence, Harold. 2013. The Clause Structure of Wolof: ...
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  • 1,069
2 votes

Why some verbs have -tion while others don't, when being nounified

It's worth noting that there are a number of well known patterns. They're not perfect, but they usually work. There's likely 50 common patterns and another 150 that are less common.
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2 votes

Common root 'to gather' and 'together'

As it has been pointed out, it’s interesting that this works although the words don’t seem to be related between (some of) the languages. At least I cannot come up with a common root for engl. “gather”...
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